With the rapid development of emergency medicine and the introduction of new business and technology in emergency nursing, emergency nursing is gradually developing in the direction of diversification and specialization. And natural disasters, accidents and disasters, public **** health, social security and other emergencies continue to occur, so that the construction of emergency nursing service system in modern hospital management plays an increasingly important role. The following is the emergency nursing comprehensive test questions related information that I have organized for you for your reference.
First Aid Nursing Comprehensive Test Questions1. The patient fell from a high place, causing pelvic fracture, left humerus fracture and open fracture of the left femur, and the wound is bleeding heavily. The first aid treatment is
A. Rescue shock B. Temporary immobilization of the fracture C. Pressure bandage to stop bleeding
D. Fracture repositioning E. None of the above
2. Cirrhosis combined with upper gastrointestinal hemorrhage is often complicate after stopping the bleeding
A Cancer B Asphyxiation C Hepatic encephalopathy
D Infection E Jaundice
3. The first task of the pre-hospital first aid is? What is the first task of pre-hospital emergency care?
A prehospital first aid for victims of disasters or wars B pivotal task of communication network centers
C ambulance duty on special tasks D popularization and education of first aid knowledge
E prehospital first aid for patients who call for help in normal times
4. What is incorrect in the description of bandaging?
A The bandaging action should be gentle, do not touch the wound
B The bandaging should be appropriate
C The bandaging should be kept in a comfortable position
D The direction of the bandaging is from proximal to distal, taking care to expose the end of the limb
E The bandaging should be tied on the outer side of the limb, not on the wound
5. The patient is a male 65 years old, who has been in the hospital since the beginning of his life. years old. History of hypertension for country years. Suddenly became unconscious during an activity and was diagnosed with ? Cerebral hemorrhage? Admitted to the hospital. Physical examination: one side of the pupil dilated, unequal round, suggesting that the patient's condition is
A cerebral hernia formation B hemorrhage site close to the eye C brain stem hemorrhage
D motoneural paralysis E cerebral hemorrhage is large
6. On the process of prehospital emergency care, the correct statement is?
A A large number of casualties should first be triaged
B When a large number of casualties are rescued, all casualties should be sent to the nearest hospital as soon as possible
C Carbon monoxide poisoning patients should be rescued in situ and should not be moved
D Thorough physical examination should be performed on all casualties at the scene
E Bleeding patients should be tourniqueted using a A tourniquet should be used to stop bleeding
7. Which of the following is not true about the division of first aid zones at the scene?
A Safety Zone B Reception Zone C First Aid Zone D Evacuation Zone E Peace Zone
8. Which one of the following is not included in the color coding of first aid for on-site casualties?
A red, B black, C yellow, D green, E blue
9. How long is the best time to give first aid to a patient after an accidental injury?
A 1 hour B 6 hours C 12 hours D 24 hours E 48 hours
10. A tourniquet should not be applied for more than?
A 30 minutes B 1 hour C 1.5 hours D 2 hours E 3 hours
11. What is wrong with the setup of an emergency department?
A The emergency department should be separate or relatively separate B The entrance and exit routes do not have to be too wide
C It should be equipped with communication links D Emergency signs must be visible and easy for patients to find
E There should be a parking lot and a separate entrance to the emergency department
12. What is not part of the first aid equipment?
A Fully automated suction machine B Electrocardiograph C Motorized gastric lavage machine
D Nebulizer inhaler E Simple respirator
13. At triage, a patient complains of? right upper abdominal pain with shoulder pain after a full meal,? His probable illness is?
A appendicitis B cholecystitis C acute gastroenteritis D angina E acute peritonitis
14. Evaluation of the efficiency of the work of the emergency department, the quality of health care and management of the level of the important signs is?
A length of time B level of care C level of medical care D number of beds in the emergency observation room E number of doctors and nurses
15. On the layout of the emergency department, which is wrong?
A emergency department should be independent or relatively independent B entrance and exit corridors do not have to be too wide
C triage room set up in the entrance to the obvious position D resuscitation room should be close to the doctor's office
E treatment room should be close to the nurse's office
16. the main metabolic site of toxic substances in the body is?
A Kidney B Liver C Lung D Heart E Spleen
17. Pupil constriction can be caused by which of the following types of poisoning?
A Atropine B Organophosphorus C Ether D Methanol E Formaldehyde
18. A cherry red color of the mucous membranes of the skin is seen in which type of poisoning?
A CO B Methanol C Lead poisoning D Organophosphorus E CO2
19. Which of the following is NOT? An indicator of atropinization? A indicator of atropinization?
A Flushing and dryness of the face B Normal or mildly elevated body temperature C Tachycardia
D Vague consciousness E Mental retardation
20. Which of the following should be the first thing to be done at the scene of CO poisoning?
A rapid departure from the scene of poisoning B artificial respiration C pressure in the middle of the person D immediate administration of oxygen E cardiac compression
21. the following about the poison and its corresponding antidote is wrong?
A Lead poisoning-calcium disodium edetate B Nitrobenzene poisoning-melamine
C Cyanide-naloxone D D Dichlorvos poisoning-atropine
E Nitrite poisoning-melamine
22. The patient was physically active for 2 hours under the scorching sun, with profuse sweating, thirst, and tightness in the chest, palpitations, nausea, and vomiting, with an axillary temperature of 38 degrees Celsius, a pulse of 105 beats/min, and a blood pressure of 12 degrees Celsius. His axillary temperature is 38°C, pulse is 105 beats/min, and blood pressure is 12.0/6.7 kPa (90/50 mmHg). The best rescue measure at this time is?
A transfer to a ventilated, cool place B oral large quantities of cool drinks C ice bath
D ice cap cooling E 5% glucose saline 500 ml rapid intravenous drip
23. On the pathophysiological changes of freshwater drowning, which of the following is correct?
A Hypocalcemia B Hypokalemia C Hypoxemia D Hypoglycemia E Hypochloremia
24. Which of the following is a characteristic of a venomous snake bite?
A Wound with 2 rows of shallow small teeth marks B Wound with 4 rows of jagged shallow small teeth marks
C Wound with 2 pinpoint deep teeth marks D Wound with a zig-zag pattern
E Absence of localized pain, swelling, numbness, and weakness within 20 minutes
25. Which of the following is preferred when a patient with traumatic shock arrives at the emergency room?
A Immediate X-ray, ultrasound, clear injury B Establish intravenous access, replenish blood volume
C Immediately lying down to clear the airway D Caesarean section to find out whether there is damage to abdominal organs
E Application of vasoactive drugs
26. A male, hit by a car 30 minutes after the hospital, clear, blood pressure 140/90mmHg, diagnosis of Pelvic fracture, left femur fracture, according to which it can be determined that he belongs to?
A Multiple injuries B Combined injuries C Multiple injuries D Compound injuries E Additional injuries
27. The principle of wound management for trauma victims is incorrect?
A foreign bodies in the wound should not be removed arbitrarily B the exposed fracture breaks in the trauma should not be retracted
C debridement should be done carefully and cautiously to wipe away the blood clot D spinal fracture should not be moved arbitrarily
E the fracture should be temporarily immobilized
28. In the following cases of a multiple injury casualty, the wound should be resuscitated first?
A Tension pneumothorax B Shock C Bleeding in the head D Open fracture of the limbs E Unconsciousness
29. Which of the following is incorrect with regard to acupressure hemostasis?
A Bleeding from the top of the head compresses the superficial temporal artery B Bleeding from the facial area compresses the facial artery
C Bleeding from the neck, face, and top of the head compresses the common carotid artery D Bleeding from the shoulder, axilla, and arm compresses the brachial artery
E Bleeding from the anterior shoulder compresses the brachial artery
30.The treatment of the casualty who has a dislodged abdominal organ is wrong?
A Make the patient lie decubitus, with the head tilted to one side B The dislodged viscera cannot be retracted
C Protect the dislodged viscera with a container, etc., and then bandage it
D Do not allow the edges of the container to press on the dislodged viscera to avoid necrosis
E Maintain the supine position after bandaging, and flex the lower extremities
31.Therapeutic measures in the management of MODS include?
A Treatment of etiology B Blocking of pathologic pathways C Organ function support
D Prevention of infection E All of the above
32. To prevent stress ulcers, the pH of gastric juice should be maintained at?
A 3-4 B 4-7 C 3 or less D 7 or more E 7 or less
33. The precautions for applying vasodilators do not include which of the following?
A Judge whether the blood volume is replenished B Intravenous infusion should be started with a small dose and low rate C Adjust the drip rate according to the change of blood pressure D Disable vasodilators in the case of very low urine output
E According to the function of the heart, the heart should not be used in people with a low discharge
34. At present, China's out-of-hospital emergency medical care mainly has which forms of organization, which of the following is wrong?
A Guangzhou model B Chongqing model
C Tianjin model D Beijing model E Shanghai model
35. Which of the following descriptions of the chain of survival is wrong?
A It is composed of four interconnected links
B It consists of four loops: Early Access - Early CPR - Early Defibrillation - Early Advanced Life Support (ALS)
C It is the first to witness the entire process
D The earlier and more widely the program is popularized, the greater the success rate of rescuing critically ill patients
E Rapidly administering early defibrillation is the most important factor in determining survival. Cardiac defibrillation is the most important determinant of survival
36. Which of the following is not true of the rapid on-site assessment of the critically ill?
A patting the cheek of the baby to see if there is crying and other reactions to determine consciousness
B through a look, two hear, three feel method to determine whether the patient's spontaneous respiration is present
C touch the pulse to understand the patient's pulse rate and pulse rhythm and arterial pulsation is present
D such as the sanity of clear limbs can not be moved to be on the lookout for spinal cord injury, pay attention to the brakes protect
E such as coma shock patients pay attention to whether the airway is open
37. out-of-hospital emergency care program is correct?
A Field ambulance - Field assessment - Rescue call - Transit and en route monitoring
B Field assessment - Rescue call - Field ambulance - Transit and en route monitoring
C Field assessment - Rescue call - Transit and en route monitoring - Field ambulance
D Field ambulance - Transit and en route monitoring - Field assessment - Rescue call
E Rescue call - Field ambulance - Field assessment - Transit and en route monitoring Which of the following is incorrect when triaging the sick and injured?
A Mildly injured people can be triaged to the residence or temporary accommodation, or to the community health station after general treatment
B Moderately injured people can be triaged to the nearby hospitals after symptomatic emergency treatment
C Severe injuries can be immediately triaged to the nearby hospitals
D Dead people to do a good job in the aftermath of the body disposal
E On the way of transportation E Continuous monitoring and necessary treatment and care during transfer
39. What are the inappropriate descriptions of the transfer characteristics of different means of transportation?
A stretcher transfer is more comfortable and smooth, generally not subject to road and terrain restrictions, but slow, labor consumption,
B car transfer speed, less affected by weather conditions, but in the uneven road driving bumps more serious;
C ship, airboat transfer smooth, but the wind and waves of the bumps is very strong, very easy to cause seasickness.
D aircraft transfer speed, high efficiency, suitable for the transfer of patients suffering from any disease
E aircraft transfer speed, high efficiency, suitable for the transfer of terrain unique small amount of patients
40. cardiac arrest of the main diagnostic criteria of the following correct?
A sudden loss of consciousness with respiratory arrest B sudden loss of consciousness with loss of aortic pulsation
C sudden respiratory arrest with dilated pupils D sudden loss of consciousness with pallor
E sudden loss of consciousness with dilated pupils
41. When a person faints on the ground and is in a prone position or lying on the side, the person should be turned into the resuscitation position, and which one of the following practices is wrong?
A The rescuer is on the patient's side and straightens the patient's upper extremities toward the head
B The patient's lower leg near the rescuer's side is placed on the distal lower leg, and the legs are crossed
C One hand holds the patient's head and back of the neck, and the other holds the patient's armpit or crotch away from the rescuer's side
D The patient's head, neck, shoulders, and trunk are turned over and the patient is placed in the resuscitation position toward the rescuer. D Turn the patient's head, neck, shoulders, and torso toward the rescuer and place both upper extremities on either side of the body. E The rescuer should keep the patient under observation at all times for any changes in his or her condition.
42. Which of the following is false regarding the opening of the airway?
A Opening the airway to ensure a patent airway is the key to cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
B The head-up, chin-up method, in which the rescuer stands on one side of the patient
C The jaw-support method, in which the rescuer stands on one side of the patient
D The head-up, chin-up method, in a patient with suspected neck injuries
E Excessive opening of the mouth decreases the degree of neck extension, and the hypopharynx becomes blocked
E Excessive mouth opening decreases the degree of neck extension and the hypopharynx becomes blocked
E The rescuer must always monitor for changes in condition.
43. Which of the following is false regarding cardiac defibrillation?
A Defibrillation of a patient in cardiac arrest should be? Synchronized? B The earlier the defibrillation, the more likely it is to be successful
C The maximum unidirectional defibrillation energy should not exceed 360 WS D No one should have access to the patient or the bed during the shock E Cardiac defibrillation is contraindicated in arrhythmias caused by digitalis overdose
44.
A Emergency pre-screening triage nurse must be familiar with the business, strong sense of responsibility nurses to serve
B In the event of a large number of sick and wounded should be immediately reported to the superiors and the relevant departments, such as the leadership to the scene before the rescue.
C. Critical patients should be immediately put into the green channel
D. Patients with infectious diseases or suspected of having infectious diseases to the hospital emergency, should be arranged to isolation room
E. Critically ill patients should be rescued and then registered for the best time.
45. Which of the following is not correct in analyzing the symptoms that accompany dyspnea?
A with fever can be seen in pneumonia
B with cough, coughing up pus sputum can be seen in acute exudative pleurisy
C with rales can be seen in bronchial asthma
D with coma can be seen in meningitis, diabetic ketoacidosis, etc.
E with laryngeal rales can be seen in tracheal obstruction
46. In the physical assessment of the neurologic examination, which of the following is correct? Which of the following is NOT true of the neurologic examination in the physical assessment?
A Evaluation of the pupil, including pupil size, shape, symmetry, and light emission;
B Positive meningeal irritation sign can be seen in subarachnoid hemorrhage, occipital foramen magnum hernia, meningitis, encephalitis, and so on
C Motor function, in comatose patients, the paralyzed limb muscle tone must be higher than that of the healthy side
D Reflexes, examination of superficial emission, deep reflexes and pathological reflexes, there is no difference between left and right. reflexes, there is no difference between right and left.
E Tactile and nociceptive sensations belong to the superficial reflex examination, normal nociceptive symmetry on both sides, sensitive to touch
47. The statement about PEEP, the error is?
A PEEP refers to positive end-expiratory pressure ventilation, and its main function is to prevent small airway closure and improve oxygenation
B PEEP is commonly used for 3-12 cm, and is generally not more than 15 cmH2O
C The larger the PEEP value is, the greater the return volume of blood, which is prone to heart failure
D In clinical application, we should try to find the optimal PEEP value suitable for the patient.
E PEEP is a mechanical ventilator that generates positive pressure in the inspiratory phase
48. What is the most common complication of floating catheter intubation?
A cardiac arrhythmia B pulmonary embolism infection D pulmonary hemorrhage E pulmonary atelectasis
49.The following are correct regarding the setting of ventilator parameters?
A VT refers to the minute ventilation, generally adults 8~12ml/kg
B RR refers to the respiratory rate, generally adults 20~24 times/min
C FiO2 is the oxygen concentration, in order to alleviate the patient's symptoms of respiratory distress, the higher the better the concentration of the given
D peak flow refers to the inspiratory flow rate, generally adults 40~100L
E Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP): physiologic level of 3-7cmH2O
50. Which of the following statements is wrong about the care of artificial airway?
A Suctioning as needed to keep the airway open B Proper immobilization to prevent the tube from dislodging
C The more wetting the better, so as to avoid sputum viscosity and crusting D Should be combined with chest physiotherapy to keep the airway open