A "Specialized Requirements for the Quality and Competence of Medical Laboratories"
B. "General Requirements for the Competence of Testing and Calibration Laboratories"
C. "General Requirements for Laboratory Bioanalysis"
D. All of the above are correct
Answer: A
2.In order to implement the quality system
2. >
A. Use the appropriate valid versions of documents in all departments and positions related to quality activities
B. Withdraw lapsed documents in a timely manner
C. Withdraw obsolete documents in a timely manner
D. All of the above are correct
Answer: D
3. The laboratory's person who has overall responsibility for the operation of the quality system is:
A. The top Manager
B. Quality Leader
C. Technical Leader
D. Specialized Laboratory Team Leader
Answer:
4. Which of the following activities must be carried out by a person who is not directly responsible for his/her work?
A. Management reviewer
B. Contract reviewer
C. Supervisory inspection
D. Quality system audit
Answer: D
5. The main purpose of conducting an on-site quality system audit is to
A. Revise the quality manual
B. Verify the implementation of the quality system documentation<
C. to modify the procedure documents
D. to look for problems with the quality system
Answer: B
6. The client of a laboratory asks a qualified organization to conduct a quality system audit of the laboratory, which is called a
A. first-party audit
B. second-party audit
C. third-party D. All of the above are correct
Answer: C
7. Nonconformities identified during an audit must be
A. Documented
B. Recognized by the management of the party being audited
C. Third-party audits
D. First-party audits
Answer: B
8. Sometimes the urgent need for work, purchased materials or consumables in the calibration/testing process is too late to test or bath suitable instruments, and can not be sure of the quality of the A. still not allowed to be put into use
B. should be fully convinced that the certificate of conformity issued by the supplier or fully convinced of the calibration/testing operator's experience and technical skills can be put into use
C. to be approved by the Laboratory Authorized person for approval, good records and marking before being released for use
D. After the approval of the laboratory authorized person, can not do the records and marking can be released for use
Answer: C
9. The review of the instrumentation is mainly to review the
A. Calibration/testing and testing the legitimacy of the certificate of inspection
B. Measurement of traceability of the results of the Validity
C. Completeness of the records of the use of instruments and equipment
D. All of the above
Answer: B
10. Usually, the general hospital laboratories belong to the biosafety level laboratories
A. Level 1
B. Level 2
C. Level 3
D. Level 4
Answer. B
11. "Patient preparation" is:
A. Content of test procedures
B. Preventive measures
C. Content of pre-test procedures
D. Content of post-test procedures
Answer: C
12. For measuring equipment
A. Only authorized persons may operate the equipment
B. The equipment may be operated by authorized persons only.
B. Only the laboratory director may operate the equipment
C. Anyone who enters the laboratory may operate the equipment as long as they follow the instructions
D. The leader of each laboratory group may operate the equipment
Answer: A
13. A medical laboratory is
A. A laboratory that is designed for the purpose of diagnosing, preventing, or treating human disease or evaluating human health
A. Provide information for the purpose of
B. A laboratory that performs clinical chemistry, clinical microbiology, clinical hematology, clinical immunology, clinical cytology, and other tests on material from the human body
C. A laboratory that can provide consultative services within the scope of its testing
D. All of the above
Answer: D
14. The general requirements for a quality system can be summarized as follows
14. Requirements can be summarized as
A. write what you do (what should be done must be documented)
B. do what you write (what is written in the document must be done)
C. remember what you do (what is done must be documented)
D. All of the above is correct
Answer: D
15. GB19489-2004 General Requirements for Laboratory Biosafety states that laboratory individuals are responsible
A. for using cosmetics and handling contact lenses in the work area
B. for wearing rings, earrings, wristwatches, bracelets, necklaces and other jewelry in the work area
C. for Drinking water
D. Personal belongings, clothing and cosmetics should not be placed in areas where there are regulations prohibiting them and where contamination may occur
Answer: D
16.GB19489-2004 General Requirements for Laboratory Biosafety stipulates safe work behavior in laboratories
A. Laboratory staff who have Actual or possible contact with blood, body fluids or other contaminated materials, even with gloves should immediately wash their hands
B. Staff leaving the laboratory can take gloves out of the laboratory
C. Remove the gloves, before and after the use of restrooms can be used without washing their hands
D. You can take gloves to smoke
Answer: A
17. GB19489-2004 General Requirements for Laboratory Biosafety stipulates the immunization status of laboratory workers
A. All laboratory workers should be immunized to prevent them from being infected by biological factors they may come into contact with, and immunization records should be kept in accordance with the regulations
B. Laboratory workers should be given a health checkup every year, which can be done without keeping records
D. You can smoke with gloves. Records may not be kept
C. Health records may be made public
D. Serum from staff health checks does not need to be kept
Answer:A
18. regarding sharps handling should be
A. Hand scissoring, bending, breaking, and re-casing of any sharps is prohibited
B. Safe work practices should minimize the use of Sharps and try to use alternatives
C. Sharp sharps should be discarded in the sharps box after use and replaced before the contents reach 2/3
D. All of the above are correct
Answer: D
19. Class II biological safety cabinets are used to protect
A. the operator, samples, and the environment
B. open flames can be used in the cabinet
C. Aerosol-generating operations do not need to be performed in a biological safety cabinetD. None of the above is true
Answer:A
20.Quality system documentation includes
A. Quality manuals, procedure documents, standard operating procedures, and records
B. Quality manuals and procedure documents
C. Standard operating procedures and Records
D. Procedure documents and SOPs
Answer: A
21. The coefficient of variation (CV1) for a 20-day measurement of blood glucose for the same lot size concentration of QC material is 3.2% for Laboratory A, and the coefficient of variation (CV2) for a 20-day measurement in Laboratory B is 2.1%. Which of the following is true:
A. Laboratory A is more precise than laboratory B for glucose
B. Laboratory A is equal to laboratory B for glucose
C. Laboratory B is more precise than laboratory A for glucose
D. Laboratory B is more precise than laboratory A for glucose
D. Laboratory B is more precise than laboratory A for glucose
It is difficult to compare the results. p> Answer: C
22. In clinical testing quality control, the probability of a false loss of control should not exceed:
A. 5%
B. 1%
C. 0.01%
D. 0.05% E. 0.3%
Answer: A
23. Assuming that the mean number of quality control results for a glucose measurement taken in a routine laboratory on a 20-day period is 5, it would be difficult to compare the precision of laboratory B to laboratory A
D. For glucose, laboratory B is more precise than laboratory A. quality control results have a mean of 5.6 mmol/L and a standard deviation of 0.5 mmol/L; the mean of the first month's in-room data is 5.4 mmol/L with a standard deviation of 0.2 mmol/L; and the mean of the cumulative data calculations is 5.5 mmol/L with a standard deviation of 0.3 mmol/L.Of the first month's in-room quality control data, 7.2 mmol/L should be judged as:
A. In control
B. Out of control
C. Warning
D. Within ±2S
Answer: B
24. A laboratory blood glucose participating in an inter-room QC activity is biased by a measurement of 5.25 mmol/L, with a target value of 5.0 mmol/L, of:
A. 1%
B. 10%
C. 5%
D. 2%
ANSWER:C
25. The standards used to calibrate the deterministic method, to evaluate and to calibrate the reference method are
A. Primary standards
B. Secondary standards
C. Tertiary standards
D. Controls
Answer:A
26. It is generally accepted that analytical methods used in confirmatory experiments are desired to have
A. high sensitivity
B. high specificity
C. good reproducibility
D. high overall validity
Answer:B
27. Repeatability experiments are an important way of testing A. random error
B. operational error
C method error
D. proportional systematic error
Answer: A
28. How many people measure a normally distributed biochemical indicator in a normal population with values in the ±3 SD
A. 99.73%
B. 50%
Answer. > B. 50%
C. 68.27%
D. 95.45%
Answer: A
29. Assuming that the mean of the QC results of a 20-day measurement of blood glucose in a routine laboratory is 5.6 mmol/L, with a standard deviation of 0.5 mmol/L, and that the mean of the in-control data for the first month is 5.4 mmol/L, the standard deviation is 0.2 mmol/L. standard deviation is 0.2 mmol/L; the mean calculated for the cumulative data is 5.5 mmol/L with a standard deviation of 0.3 mmol/L. The warning line of the single-value QC chart for the second month
A. 4.9~6.1 mmol/L
B. 5.0~5.8 mmol/L
C. 4.6~6.4 mmol/L
D. 5.2~5.8 mmol/
Answer: A
30. A laboratory blood glucose participates in an interlaboratory quality assessment activity, and its measurement result is 5.25 mmol/L, the target value is 5.0 mmol/L, and the range of its evaluation is ±10% of the target value. The result of this measurement can be judged as
A. unacceptable
B. out of control
C. unsatisfactory
D. acceptable
Answer: D
31. The statistical regularity of random errors can be categorized primarily as
A. pairwise ranges
B. boundedness
C . . single peakedness
D. all of the above
Answer: D
32. The evaluation test that should be used to check the accuracy of a candidate method is
A. Repeatability test
B. Control test
C. Interference test
D. Recovery test
Answer: D
33. The error created by the addition of interferents to an interference test is
A. random error
B. operational error
C. method error
D. constant system error
Answer: D
34. Failure to achieve a satisfactory performance on the same analytical item for two consecutive activities or two of the three consecutive activities is known as < /p>
A. a failure to achieve satisfactory performance on the same analytical item for two or three consecutive activities.
A. Unsatisfactory EQA score
B. Satisfactory EQA score
C. Successful EQA score
D. Unsuccessful EQA score
Answer: D
35. In an activity of the Clinical Chemistry Inter-Room Quality Assessment (CRQA), for the results of five different batches of Potassium, where the results of one batch exceed the specified range, the score should be D
. specified range, the score should be
A. 80%
B. 100%
C. 60%
D. 90%
Answer: A
36. The following statements about the medical decision level are incorrect
A. It can be used to identify a disease
B. It can be used to determine a particular disease
C. is another way of saying reference value
D. if it is higher or lower than this value, certain therapeutic measures should be taken
ANSWER: C
37. The positive prognostic value of a diagnostic test is defined as the
A. the proportion of true-negative tests that result in the use of a test on a patient who is not sick
B. the proportion of diagnostic tests that are true-positive in a patient with a disease
. Proportion of diagnostic tests that are true-positive
C. the percentage of true-positives in a population of subjects
D. the percentage of true-negatives in a population of subjects
Answer: C
38. The relationship between the variance in the optimal conditions (OCV) and the variance in the conventional conditions (RCV) is
A. OCV>RCV
B. OCV<RCV
C. OCV=RCV
D. There is no relationship between the two
Answer:B
39. In the L-J QC plot, the warning line is
A. X±SD
B. X±2SD
C. X±3SD
D. X
Answer: B
40. The clinical biochemical method with the highest accuracy is the < /p>
A. Classical method
B. Comparative method
C. Conventional method
D. Deterministic method
Answer: D
41. A biochemistry that is normally distributed in the population is commonly used to develop a range of values for the reference value of <
A. ±SD
B. ±2SD
C. ±3SD
D. ±4SD
Answer: B
42. Repeated measurements of a substance in a sample yield results that are very close to the true value.
C. Sensitivity
D. Repeatability
Answer: A
43. Which of the following statements about analytical specificity is incorrect
A. Relates to accuracy
B. Relates to interferences
C. Relates to reproducibility
D. Can be measured using an additive substance
Answer: C
44. ±3s in the indoor mass plot indicates
A. 4.5% of QC results are outside this range
B. 1% of QC results are outside this range
C. 2% of QC results are outside this range
D. 0.3% of QC results are outside this range
Answer. : D
45. The number of samples for which the mean is initially taken in an indoor QC cannot be less than
A. 200
B. 50
C. 150
D. 20
Ans. 46. Calculation of 20 days of indoor QC data for blood glucose with a mean value of 5.0 mmol/L. The standard deviation is 0.25 mmol/L. The coefficient of variation is
A. 5%
B. 4%
C. 3%
D. 2%
Answer: A
47. The blood glucose samples are measured in hospital A in the normal range, but the results are different in hospital B. It is later verified that the standard solution used in hospital B has deteriorated. A. Systematic error
B. Accidental error
C. Incidental error
D. Occasional error
Answer: A
48. Indoor quality control mainly evaluates the testing system's:
A. precision
B. accuracy
C. systematic error
D. accuracy
C. systematic error<
D. Random error
Answer:A
49. Inter-room quality assessment is primarily an evaluation of the testing system's:
A. Accuracy
B. Precision
C. Systematic error
D. Random error
Answer:A
50. A testing system is a system of tests that accomplishes a test involving:
A. instrumentation, reagents
B. calibrators, operating procedures
C. quality control
D. all of the above are correct
Answer: D
51. Precision is defined as the degree to which the size of the random error in a measurement result
A. the size of the random error in the measurement result
B. the systematic error B. the combination of systematic error and random error
C. the degree to which a measurement agrees with the true value
D. can be measured directly
Answer: A
52. Accuracy refers to the degree to which the size of random error in a measurement result
A. the size of random error in a measurement result
B. the combination of systematic error and random error Combined
C. Indicates the degree of agreement between the measurement result and the true value
D. Can be expressed numerically
Answer: B
53. Random errors are characterized by:
A. Random errors are a class of non-constant, randomly varying errors
B. Are constant errors
C. Have a A. have a large impact
D. are skewed
Answer: A
54. Systematic error is characterized by:
A. the value or constant of systematic error
B. not have a certain regularity
C. not have much impact on the test results
D. can't be eliminated and controlled
Answer. >
55. The relationship between precision and accuracy is:
A. When precision is high, the test results are accurate
B. When precision is high, accuracy must be high
C. Precision and accuracy are the same in all cases
D. Only after systematic errors have been eliminated, at which point the higher the precision, the higher the accuracy.
Answer: D
56. The advantages of the Levey-Jennings QC chart are:
A. simplicity and ease of use; it allows individual QC measurements to be plotted directly on the chart after the mean and standard deviation are known
B. no rate of false runaway
C. high specificity for error identification
D. the most D. the most accurate QC method
Answer: A
57. When an out-of-control signal is detected, what steps are used to find the cause?
A. Rerun the same QC immediately
B. Open a new bottle of QC and retest the out-of-control item
C. Perform instrument maintenance and retest the out-of-control item. Recalibrate and retest the out-of-control item. Ask for expert help.
D. All of the above are correct
Answer: D
58. Medical malpractice refers to the medical institutions and their medical staff in medical activities
A. Violation of medical and health care management laws, administrative regulations, departmental rules and regulations, and diagnosis and treatment norms, routines, negligence caused by the patient's personal injury accident.
B. Compliance with diagnosis and care norms, routines, the patient died of complications.
C. In medical activities due to the abnormal condition of the patient or the patient's special physical condition and medical accidents
D. Delay in diagnosis and treatment due to the patient's reasons leading to adverse consequences
Answer: A
59. Which of the following circumstances is not a medical incident:
A. In an emergency situation in order to save the life of dying patients and take B. Under the existing medical science and technology conditions, the occurrence of unforeseen or unguarded adverse consequences
C. No-fault blood transfusion infections resulting in adverse consequences;
D. All of the above are correct
Answer: D
60. Medical personnel in the course of medical activities occurred or found that medical malpractice, medical negligence that may cause medical malpractice, or a dispute over medical malpractice, they should
A. immediately report to the head of their department, who shall promptly report to the department responsible for monitoring the quality of medical services in the medical institution or to a full-time (part-time) staff member;
B. Upon receipt of the report, the department responsible for monitoring the quality of medical services or the special (part-time) staff member shall immediately investigate, investigate and report to the department responsible for monitoring the quality of medical services;
Answer D
60. After the report, it shall immediately investigate, verify, and report the situation to the person in charge of the medical institution truthfully, and inform and explain to the patient.
C. Suspected transfusion, blood transfusion, injections, drugs, etc. caused by adverse consequences, the parties can handle the evidence.
D. It should be handled as A and B.
Answer:D
61. suspected blood transfusion causing adverse consequences requires
A. blood to be sealed and retained, and the healthcare provider should notify the blood collection and supply organization that provided the blood to send an officer to the scene.
B. The patient's blood sample can be discarded
C. The blood supplier's blood sample can be discarded
D. All of the above are correct
Answer: A
62. The laboratory report (test report) is:
A. Not a statutory material for technical appraisal of medical malpractice
B. A statutory material for technical appraisal of medical malpractice
C. It can be modified at will
D. None of the above is correct
Answer:B
63.Regulations on the Handling of Medical Accidents
A.In force since February 21, 1989
B.In force since February 20, 2002
C.In force since August 28, 2004
D. Effective from September 1, 2002
Answer: D
64. New Infectious Disease Prevention and Control Law
A. Effective from February 21, 1989
B. Effective from August 28, 2004
C. Effective from December 1, 2004
D. Effective from Effective from August 28, 2004
Answer:C
65.Which of the following statements is correct about the New Infectious Disease Prevention and Control Law
A.For infectious atypical pneumonia in category B infectious diseases, pulmonary anthrax in anthrax and human infection of highly pathogenic avian influenza, the preventive and control measures for infectious diseases of category A referred to by this law shall be taken.
B. Influenza and mumps belong to category B infectious diseases
C. Infectious atypical pneumonia belongs to category A infectious diseases
D. Human infection with highly pathogenic avian influenza belongs to category A infectious diseases
Answer.